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I've heard a rumor that when building applications for iOS, the developer is bound to a 2-year exclusivity of that application for iOS upon the project's completion. Is this a true statement or is the 2-year exclusivity up to the dealings of Apple with its application developers?

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I never heard of such a requirement. Could you please share a link? – dasblinkenlight Oct 2 '12 at 21:29
@dasblinkenlight I can't link to RL. That would be awesome though. – Mechaflash Oct 2 '12 at 21:35
I've voted to close this for the same reasons I close "Is [my favorite technology] dead?" questions. As always, your best source for information about Apple agreements is Apple. – Robert Harvey Oct 2 '12 at 22:25
That would smack of anticompetitive behavior which is illegal in the USA, so Apple would not do it. – mattnz Oct 2 '12 at 22:26
@mattnz hmm, Apple's not known for caring much about such things. In fact they're well known for trying to get away with as much as they can until people complain too much. – jwenting Oct 3 '12 at 7:52
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closed as not a real question by Robert Harvey, ChrisF♦ Oct 2 '12 at 22:55

It's difficult to tell what is being asked here. This question is ambiguous, vague, incomplete, overly broad, or rhetorical and cannot be reasonably answered in its current form. For help clarifying this question so that it can be reopened, see the FAQ.

1 Answer

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It's false. I'd link you, but I don't know how to link to the absence of a clause. Just notice that lots of apps come out simultaneously, or nearly so, on multiple platforms (Android, iOS, etc.).

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I figured as much. I looked through the developers' agreement and didn't see it in there myself. However, I just wanted to ensure that I didn't just miss something. Just a friend swore up-and-down that it did exist. – Mechaflash Oct 2 '12 at 21:36

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